%! TEX root = TA.tex % vim: tw=50 % 30/01/2024 12PM We will prove only the 2 dimensional version of this theorem, but a more general version works in $\RR^n$. \begin{flashcard}[sperners-lemma] \begin{lemma*}[Sperner's Lemma] \label{sperners_lemma} \cloze{Take an equilateral triangle formed from a collection of smaller triangles by using $n$ equally spaced lines parallel to each of the sides of the big triangle. Now colour all the vertices red, green or blue subject to the rule that if $XYZ$ are the vertices of the big triangle, then all the vertices on $XY$ except $X$ are red, all vertices on $YZ$ except $Z$ are blue and all vertices on $ZX$ except $X$ are green. Then at least one small triangle has vertices of all $3$ colours.} \end{lemma*} \begin{proof} \cloze{Let $\Gamma$ be the set of small vertices. Once the colouring has been chosen, we will assign each $T \in \Gamma$ an integer $\zeta(T)$ according to a rule. For vertices of $\alpha, \beta$ of $T$, define $\zeta(\alpha\beta)$ to be: \[ \zeta(\alpha \beta) = \begin{cases} 1 & \text{RG, BR, GB} \\ 0 & \text{RR, BB, GG} \\ -1 & \text{GR, RB, BG} \end{cases} \] Now define \[ \zeta(T) = \zeta(\alpha\beta) + \zeta(\beta\gamma) + \zeta(\gamma\alpha) \] where $\alpha, \beta, \gamma$ are the vertices listed counter clockwise. Observe $\zeta(T) = 3$ or $\zeta(T) = -3$ if $T$ is $3$-coloured, and $\zeta(T) = 0$ otherwise (to see this, just consider the cases where we have exactly 2 of the same colour, or having 3 of the same colour). Now look at $\sum_T \zeta(T)$. Note that all inner edges cancel, so \[ \sum_T \zeta(T) = \sum_{xy} \zeta(xy) \] where $xy$ ranges over all sides of the big triangle, pointing counter clockwise. This sum on the right equals $3$ (exercise). So there must be a $3$ coloured small triangle.} \end{proof} \end{flashcard} Now we wish to revisit our cousin of \nameref{no_retrac_thm}. Suppose we have $A, B, C$ as stated. Cut up the triangle as in \nameref{sperners_lemma}. Label each vertex $\bf{x}$ to be R, G or B according to whether it lies in $A$, $B$ or $C$. If it lies in multiple, we pick arbitrarily, except for on the boundary, where we make sure to choose such that the boundaries are coloured in the way that \nameref{sperners_lemma} requires. Now \nameref{sperners_lemma} tells us that there exist vertices $\bf{a}_n \in A$, $\bf{b}_n \in B$, $\bf{c}_n \in C$ which form a small triangle. If we cut up small enough, we can make the pairwise distances between $\bf{a}_n, \bf{b}_n, \bf{c}_n$ be at most $\frac{1}{n}$. By compactness, there exists $\bf{a} \in \ol{\triangle}$ and $n(j) \to \infty$ such that $\bf{a}_{n(j)} \to \bf{a}$. Automatically, $\bf{b}_{n(j)}, \bf{c}_{n(j)} \to \bf{a}$. Apply closure to deduce $\bf{a} \in A \cap B \cap C$. Now, we can simply follow our chain of equivalences backwards to deduce \nameref{brouwer}. \subsubsection*{* Non-examinable material} Brouwer came to disbelieve his theorem. Look at our $3$ colour theorem (the cousin of \nameref{no_retrac_thm}). It says that there is a point $\bf{x} \in A \cap B \cap C$, but it gives no recipe for finding such an $\bf{x}$. ** This is the end of the non-examinable comments. \begin{flashcard}[mc-eigenval-lemma] \begin{lemma*} If $A = (a_{ij})_{\substack{1 \le i \le 3\\1 \le j \le 3}}$ (a $3 \times 3$ matrix). Suppose $a_{ij} \ge 0$ and $\sum_{i = 1}^3 a_{ij} = 1$ for $i = 1, 2, 3$. Then there exists $x_1, x_2, x_3 \ge 0$ not all zero such that $\sum_i a_{ij} x_j = x_i$ (i.e. $\bf{x}$ is an eigenvector with eigenvalue $1$). \end{lemma*} \begin{proof} \cloze{Consider $\ol{\triangle} = \{\bf{x} \in \RR^3 \st x_1 + x_2 + x_3 = 1, x_j \ge 0\}$. If $T\bf{x} = A\bf{x}$, then $y_i = \sum_j a_{ij} x_j$. Then $y_i \ge 0$ and \[ \sum_i y_i = \sum_i \sum_j a_{ij} x_j = \sum_j \sum_i a_{ij} x_i = \sum_j x_j = 1 \] So $\bf{y} \in \ol{\triangle}$, and $T$ is a continuous map $\ol{\triangle}$ to $\ol{\triangle}$, so has a fixed point.} \end{proof} \end{flashcard} \subsubsection*{Nash on economics} Nash did two things. First is study of non-zero sum games. $A$ choose strategy $1$ with probability $p$, and chooses strategy $2$ with probability $1 - p$. $B$ chooses strategy $1'$ with probability $q$, $2'$ with probability $1 - q$. Expected value to $A$ is \begin{align*} A(p, q) &= \sum_{ij} a_{ij} p_i q_j \\ B(p, q) &= \sum_{ij} b_{ij} p_i q_j \end{align*}